OSSSC Radiographer Recruitment Examination 2020 Question Paper – 100 Questions

September 01, 2026 lipan biswal

 





OSSSC Radiographer Recruitment Examination 2020
Question Paper – 100 Questions


PART-I: ARITHMETIC – 10 MARKS

1. The average of five consecutive numbers is 97. What is the smallest of these numbers?

(A) 95

(B) 96

(C) 98

(D) 99

2. Find the value of √9801?

(A) 69

(B) 79

(C) 89

(D) 99

3. A sum of Rs 5000 becomes to Rs 7000 in four years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

(A) 5%

(B) 7.5%

(C) 10%

(D) 15%

4. A sum of money is to be divided among X, Y and Z in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6. If Y gets Rs 1500, then what is Z’s share?

(A) Rs 4500

(B) Rs 1800

(C) Rs 1500

(D) Rs 1200

5. 40 ÷ 2√5 = ?

(A) 2√5

(B) 4√5

(C) 5√2

(D) 5√5

6. A cycle is bought for Rs 900 and sold for Rs 1200. Find the gain percent?

(A) 30%

(B) 30⅓%

(C) 33%

(D) 33⅓%

7. The greatest 3 digit number which is divisible by 10, 12 and 15?

(A) 900

(B) 960

(C) 990

(D) 999

8. What is the area of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm? (Use π = 22/7).

(A) 44 cm²

(B) 88 cm²

(C) 154 cm²

(D) 616 cm²

9. If a:b = 3:4 and b:c = 5:6 then find a:c?

(A) 3:6

(B) 4:5

(C) 5:8

(D) 8:5

10. Which of the following is not a perfect cube of even numbers?

(A) 343

(B) 512

(C) 1000

(D) 1728

PART-II: ENGLISH – 05 MARKS

11. A fair little girl sat under the banyan tree. (Choose the correct part of speech of the underlined word.)

(A) verb

(B) adverb

(C) adjective

(D) preposition

12. Two lines can never meet each other. (Fill in the blank with correct spelling of the word.)

(A) paralel

(B) parrallel

(C) parallel

(D) paralell

13. What is the plural of ‘calf’?

(A) calfs

(B) calfes

(C) calves

(D) calvs

14. I called him ___ his office. (Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.)

(A) at

(B) on

(C) in

(D) after

15. The chief guest distributed the prizes to the winners. (Find out the correct phrasal verb of the underlined word.)

(A) gave up

(B) gave away

(C) gave in

(D) gave off

PART-III: MEDICAL RADIATION TECHNOLOGY – 85 MARKS

16. Why is contrast used in CT scan?

(A) To suppress particular tissues

(B) To enhance a particular tissue

(C) To ensure correct tissue is being imaged

(D) To reduce bone interference

17. Which of the following agents should not be used as an agent for fluoroscopy?

(A) Silver

(B) Bismuth

(C) Thoria

(D) Tungsten

18. Which of the following indicates a partial obstruction of the larynx or trachea and demands immediate attention?

(A) rhonchi

(B) pleural rub

(C) stridor

(D) mediastinal crunch

19. Best mode of imaging for suspected uric acid calculi is

(A) Plain film of abdomen

(B) Ultrasonography

(C) Intravenous pyelography

(D) Radionuclides

20. Threshold radiation dose for haematological syndrome is?

(A) 1 Gy

(B) 5 Gy

(C) 20 Gy

(D) 1 Gy

21. Radiation treatment is given for the following non-malignant brain condition

(A) Astrocytoma

(B) Encephalitis

(C) Glioblastoma

(D) Craniopharyngioma

22. Laminated appearance of X-ray is suggestive of

(A) Ewing’s sarcoma

(B) Osteoid osteoma

(C) Osteoclastoma

(D) Multiple myeloma

23. For which of these areas can the ultrasound be taken for an infant but not for an adult?

(A) Cranium

(B) Chest

(C) Arms

(D) Legs

24. What part of the body mostly scanned by fMRI?

(A) Brain

(B) Heart

(C) Liver

(D) Kidneys

25. What is the frequency range of the sound used for ultrasound diathermy?

(A) 0.1–0.7 MHz

(B) 0.7–3.3 MHz

(C) 3.3–5 MHz

(D) 5–15 MHz

26. What makes PET and SPECT so unique when it comes to nuclear imaging?

(A) Do not require dyes

(B) Do not require X-Rays

(C) They show the metabolic functions

(D) They give more details about the imaged organ/tissue

27. How much of the generated energy is actually utilized for taking an X-Ray?

(A) 0.1%

(B) 1%

(C) 10%

(D) 100%

28. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by

(A) X-ray chest

(B) Enzyme estimation

(C) Radionuclides

(D) Blood gas analysis

29. The probe used for imaging the heart is

(A) Linear Probe

(B) Curvilinear Probe

(C) Phase Array Probe

(D) Endocavitary Probe

30. Which of the following pair of scatterings important for therapeutic purposes?

(A) Coherent and Pair Production

(B) Photoelectric and Disintegration

(C) Compton and Photoelectric

(D) Pair Production and Disintegration

31. Regulation of normal activities of the human heart takes place

(A) by the autonomic nervous system

(B) intrinsically

(C) by the diencephalon

(D) by the brain stem

32. A noninvasive method of evaluating blood flow is

(A) Doppler ultrasonography

(B) venography

(C) angiography

(D) cardiac catheterization

33. Obliteration of Left heart border in PA Chest X-ray is suggestive of

(A) Lingular pathology

(B) Left upper lobe lesion

(C) Left hilar lymph nodes

(D) Left lower lobe lesion

34. Which is the most common site for the appendix found at appendicectomy?

(A) retro-ileal

(B) retro-caecal

(C) pelvic

(D) anterior to terminal ileum

35. Gating is a newer technique used in the treatment of

(A) Ca rectum

(B) Ca tongue

(C) Ca lung

(D) Ca ovary

36. Radiation treatment is given for the following non-malignant brain condition

(A) Astrocytoma

(B) Encephalitis

(C) Glioblastoma

(D) Craniopharyngioma

37. Frontotemporal Dementia brain scan shows a

(A) growing brain

(B) shrinking brain

(C) brain with lesions

(D) brain with a tumour

38. The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called

(A) Tidal volume

(B) Vital capacity

(C) Ventilation rate

(D) Total lung capacity

39. ‘H’ shaped vertebra is seen in

(A) Phenylketonuria

(B) Sickle cell anemia

(C) Hemangioma

(D) Osteoporosis

40. Which interaction of X-rays is the basis of radiographic contrast between bone and soft tissues?

(A) Photoelectric effect

(B) Contrast scattering

(C) Compton scattering

(D) Pair production

41. Which of the following substances is activated by passage through the pulmonary circulation?

(A) Bradykinin

(B) Serotonin

(C) Noradrenaline

(D) Angiotensin I

42. Bone marrow transplant recipient patient developed chest infection. On chest X-ray Tree-on-Bud appearance. The cause of this is

(A) Klebsiella

(B) pneumocystis

(C) TB

(D) PB

43. The ureter passes deep to the:

(A) femoral nerve

(B) gonadal artery

(C) psoas muscle

(D) genitofemoral nerve

44. A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce the ultrasound waves. What kind of ultrasound is produced?

(A) Pressure wave ultrasound

(B) Electrical wave ultrasound

(C) Sound wave ultrasound

(D) Simple ultrasound

45. Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by

(A) C.T. Scan

(B) M.R.I.

(C) Barium swallow

(D) Angiography

46. In a postero-anterior view (PA view) of chest

(A) Cardiac shadow is magnified

(B) Scapula is projected over upper lobes

(C) Appears more diffusely opaque if overpenetrated

(D) Is adequate if 8–10 posterior ribs are seen above diaphragm

47. In Cobalt-60 machine, which ray is used for external beam radiotherapy?

(A) Alpha ray

(B) Beta ray

(C) Gamma ray

(D) Protons

48. Most common histopathology in head and neck carcinoma is

(A) Squamous cell carcinoma

(B) Adenocarcinoma

(C) Lymphoma

(D) Melanoma

49. Half-life of Cobalt-60 is

(A) 6.26 years

(B) 5.67 years

(C) 5.26 years

(D) 6.67 years

50. Which of the following is FALSE concerning chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers?

(A) CSF is a poor buffer and a drop in PCO₂ produces a large change in pH initiating a change in respiration.

(B) The body can adjust to chronic hypercapnea by using an active HCO₃⁻ transport process in the choroid plexus.

(C) The carotid and aortic bodies detect increases in PaCO₂ and pH, and decreases in PaO₂.

(D) 75% of ventilatory response is regulated by chemoreceptors in the CSF and 25% by the carotid and aortic bodies.

51. In Urinary tract tuberculosis, frequent finding on plain film of abdomen is

(A) Mass

(B) Ileus

(C) Calcification

(D) Psoas abscess

52. The smallest unit in the reconstruction/projection of an MRI image is called as

(A) pixel

(B) voxel

(C) binary unit

(D) dot

53. Which of the following factors decreases the heart rate?

(A) parasympathetic stimulation

(B) increase level of Na and K⁺ ions

(C) release of acetyl-choline

(D) all of the above

54. The X-Ray is recorded on a plate coated with

(A) Gold Halide

(B) Silver Halide

(C) Copper Halide

(D) Iron Halide

55. Which of the following radiations are used for imaging purposes?

(A) alpha

(B) beta

(C) gamma

(D) delta

56. A patient presents with a deep stab wound high up in the costovertebral angle beneath the 12th rib on the left side. The most likely internal injury is?

(A) laceration of the infra-renal aorta

(B) laceration of the right renal vascular pedicle

(C) puncture of the 3rd part of the duodenum

(D) pneumothorax of the left lung

57. When bones show a ‘Bone within bone’ appearance this is indicative of

(A) Sickle cell anemia

(B) Bone infarction

(C) Osteopetrosis

(D) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

58. Orthopantomogram is taken to rule out lesion in

(A) Mandible

(B) Maxilla

(C) Facial bone

(D) Skull

59. During angiocardiography the mitral valve is best visualized in the

(A) Frontal view

(B) Lateral view

(C) Right anterior oblique view

(D) None of the above

60. Which of the following is not a sesamoid bone

(A) Fabella

(B) os trigonum

(C) Patella

(D) Pisiform

61. When an abdominal ultrasound is done, why is it advised to have a full bladder?

(A) To have a good acoustic window

(B) To increase the water content

(C) To lower impedance

(D) To allow for better propagation of waves

62. In order to visualize the flow of blood in the renal arteries, what process is done with CT?

(A) CT Angioplasty

(B) CT Angiography

(C) Simple CT

(D) CT Cardiography

63. The following radiation fields are used in the treatment of lymphoma EXCEPT

(A) Mantle field

(B) Inverted Y field

(C) Dog leg field

(D) Pencil beam field

64. Pericardial calcification is caused by all except

(A) Radiotherapy to the mediastinum

(B) Methysergide therapy

(C) Anticoagulant therapy

(D) Dermatomyositis

65. What is the oxygen effect?

(A) Detrimental effect of oxygen in presence of therapeutic radiations

(B) A positive effect of oxygen in absence of therapeutic radiations

(C) Enhancement effect of oxygen in presence of therapeutic radiation

(D) Presence of oxygen during radiation treatment

66. Which mode is used for cardiac imaging?

(A) A-Mode

(B) B-Mode

(C) M-Mode

(D) 3D-Mode

67. Which of the following cells have a low resistance to radiations?

(A) Lymphocytes, Spermatogonia, Erythroblasts, Intestinal crypt cells

(B) Megakaryocytes, embryo, pancreatic cells, Intestinal crypt cells

(C) Lymphocytes, Spermatogonia, hepatic cells, nephrons

(D) Megakaryocytes, neurons, cardiac cells, Intestinal crypt cells

68. Spirometry can measure all except

(A) IC

(B) ERV

(C) FRC

(D) TV

69. The underlying principle of fMRI is that

(A) cerebral blood flow and neuronal activity are not connected

(B) cerebral blood flow and neuronal activity are connected

(C) certain parts of the brain receive more blood

(D) certain parts of the brain are more active than other parts.

70. Investigation of choice in Traumatic paraplegia is

(A) MRI

(B) CT Scan

(C) Myelography

(D) Spine X-ray

71. In the cardiovascular system, which is more affected by the radiations?

(A) Capillaries

(B) Artery

(C) Vein

(D) Cardiac Muscles

72. Beyond what dose is the cerebral system shows signs of failure?

(A) 25–200 rad

(B) 200–600 rad

(C) 600–1000 rad

(D) >1000 rad

73. Best imaging modality to diagnose liver mass is

(A) Plain film

(B) Angiography

(C) C.T. Scan

(D) Nuclear Scan

74. Regarding ventilation

(A) Normal FEV1 is 70% of FVC

(B) FEV1 is decreased much more than FVC in patients with lung fibrosis

(C) FEV1 is dependent on expiratory effort

(D) FEV1 is about 42% of FVC in a patient with obstructive lung disease

75. The total number of alveoli present in the human lungs is estimated to be around

(A) 1 billion

(B) 800 million

(C) 500 million

(D) 1500 million

76. Up to what intensity of radiation is used for mammography?

(A) <10 keV

(B) <20 keV

(C) <30 keV

(D) <40 keV

77. Which of the following needs the longest exposure for an X-Ray image?

(A) Thoracic

(B) Abdomen

(C) Spine

(D) Pelvis

78. All the following are veins which drain the stomach EXCEPT:

(A) Gastroepiploic

(B) Gastroduodenal

(C) Right gastric

(D) Left gastric

79. The detector of PET is made of

(A) Silver

(B) Gadolinium

(C) Tungsten

(D) Lead

80. Gas in biliary tract is not due to

(A) Perforated gastric ulcer

(B) Necrotizing enterocolitis

(C) Biliary surgery

(D) Post-gastrectomy

81. The umbilical cord contains:

(A) 2 arteries and 2 veins

(B) 1 artery and 2 veins

(C) 1 artery and 1 vein

(D) 2 arteries and 1 vein

82. Aorta pierces the diaphragm at the level of

(A) T8

(B) T12

(C) T10

(D) C6

83. The phenomenon in which light continues to emit for sometime even after the radiation exposure has ended is called

(A) Fluorescence

(B) Quantum mottle

(C) Phosphorescence

(D) None

84. The wave velocity of ultrasound in soft tissues is 1540 m/s and the impedance offered by it is 1.63 × 10⁶ kg/m²s. What is the density of the soft tissue?

(A) 0.1058441 kg/m³

(B) 10.58441 kg/m³

(C) 1058.441 kg/m³

(D) 105844.1 kg/m³

85. Saw tooth appearance on abdominal X-ray is seen in

(A) Prediverticular state

(B) Multiple polyposis

(C) Spastic colon

(D) Ischemic enteritis

86. Which of the following machines is often placed together with an X-Ray machine?

(A) Endoscopy

(B) Ultrasound

(C) Fluoroscopy

(D) C-Arm

87. What radiations occur when the electrons are used in radio therapy?

(A) Ionizing Radiations

(B) Gamma Rays

(C) Bremsstrahlung Radiation

(D) Infrared Rays

88. Widening of the C loop in X-ray is diagnostic of

(A) Chronic pancreatitis

(B) Carcinoma head of pancreas

(C) Periampullary carcinoma

(D) Calculi in the ampulla of Vater

89. Uterus and fallopian tubes are assessed by

(A) Micturating cystourethrography

(B) Intravenous urethrography

(C) Hysterosalpingography

(D) Myelography

90. Electronic Portal Imaging Device (EPID) in radiotherapy is used for

(A) Treatment planning

(B) Treatment verification

(C) CT simulation

(D) Conventional simulation

91. What is the main function of myoglobin?

(A) extensibility

(B) elasticity

(C) binds O2 together

(D) both (A) and (C)

92. Echoencephalography is most useful for detecting

(A) Ventricular dilatation

(B) Midline shift

(C) Epilepsy

(D) Vascular lesions

93. Alveolar ventilation in a male with a respiratory rate of 10/min and tidal volume of 600 ml is

(A) 1000 ml

(B) 1750 ml

(C) 3000 ml

(D) 4500 ml

94. SI unit of dose equivalent is

(A) Roentgens

(B) Gray

(C) Rad

(D) Sievert

95. A muscle with double innervation among the following is

(A) Flexor digitorum profundus

(B) Flexor pollicis longus

(C) Pronator quadratus

(D) Palmaris longus

96. What surgical functions are performed by the diathermy machine?

(A) cutting, coagulation, fulguration

(B) cutting, fulguration

(C) cutting, coagulation

(D) coagulation, fulguration

97. What property of sound waves acts like the principle of ultrasound?

(A) Reflection and Refraction

(B) Reflection only

(C) Refraction only

(D) Propagation

98. What is the main mode of heat transfer in rotating anode X-ray tube?

(A) Conduction

(B) Convection

(C) Radiation

(D) All the above

99. A patient with high fever will most likely demonstrate the sign of

(A) Decreased sweating

(B) Increased pulse rate

(C) Increased urinary output

(D) Increased appetite

100. Where are the lungs located?

(A) Inferior to the trachea

(B) Mediastinum of thoracic cavity

(C) anterior to the esophagus

(D) Abdominal region

 

Source note: Questions have been transcribed from the uploaded OSSSC Radiographer 2020 question-paper .